UPSC CSE Mains 2026 GS II Paper Analysis

Subject

2021

2022

2023

2024

2025

2026

2026 marks

Polity & Constitution

8

9

7

8

9

8

105

Governance

2

4

3

5

3

2

25

Social Justice

6

3

6

3

4

6

70

International Relations

4

4

4

4

4

4

50

Total

20

20

20

20

20

20

250

Theme

Years asked

Comparative constitutional analysis

2021 Q13 → 2022 Q14 → 2023 Q4 → 2024 Q15 → 2025 Q3 and Q13 → 2026 Q14

Federalism and Centre-State relations

2021 Q11 → 2022 Q13 → 2023 Q13 and Q15 → 2024 Q13 → 2025 Q14 → 2026 Q11 and Q13

Elections and the Election Commission

2022 Q11 and Q15 → 2024 Q1 → 2025 Q1 → 2026 Q4

Pressure groups and civil society

2021 Q5 and Q18 → 2022 Q17 → 2025 Q8 and Q15 → 2026 Q15

Poverty, malnutrition and food security

2021 Q8 → 2024 Q7 → 2025 Q16 → 2026 Q7

Education and skilling

2021 Q7 → 2022 Q18 → 2023 Q6 and Q18 → 2026 Q18

Women's rights and representation

2021 Q2 and Q17 → 2023 Q12 and Q14 → 2025 Q6 → 2026 Q2

Constitutional bodies for vulnerable groups

2022 Q5 NCBC → 2025 Q18 NCPCR → 2026 Q5 NCSC and NCST

Governor and State executive

2022 Q12 → 2026 Q11

China in India's neighbourhood

2021 Q10 and Q20 → 2022 Q9 → 2024 Q9 and Q20 → 2026 Q9 and Q20

E-governance and citizen-centric administration

2023 Q8 → 2024 Q16 and Q18 → 2025 Q7 → 2026 Q16

Judicial independence, accountability and overreach

2023 Q1 → 2024 Q14 → 2025 Q11 and Q13 → 2026 Q3 and Q12

Year

Level

Character

2021

Easy to moderate

Almost every question sat on an exact syllabus keyword — pressure groups, SHGs, NGOs, Legislative Councils. Only AUKUS and CBI were current-affairs driven.

2022

Moderate

Syllabus-keyword driven again, but with two explicit case-law demands. Ordinance re-promulgation and the India-France presidential comparison were the tough ones.

2023

Easy to moderate

Well spread and largely predictable. NALSA, IMO and the SCO conflict question were the less-prepared areas.

2024

Moderate to difficult

Governance rose to five questions and the paper leaned heavily on recent legislation — the Public Examination Act 2024 and recent Centre-State changes. Less room for generic writing.

2025

Moderate to difficult

Polity at nine, with technically demanding questions — preemptive pardons, tribunal rationalisation, substantive limits on amending power.

2026

Difficult

The hardest paper in the window. Questions are long and multi-part, several demand a stated position, and the framing is abstract in Q16 and Q17. Q1 requires knowledge of a 2026 amendment and Q9 requires IPMDA specifically, not just the Quad.

No.

Question

Subject

Marks

1

Right to privacy relating to self-identity is very dear to every human being and well protected under Article 21 of the Constitution. In this context, examine the effect of the amendment in 2026, to the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019.

Social Justice

10

2

“Women as a class neither belong to a minority group nor are they regarded as forming a backward class.” In the light of this statement, discuss the evolution of women's reservation from local bodies to Parliament.

Social Justice

10

3

Examine whether the constitutional office of the Lok Sabha Speaker has become vulnerable to partisan politics under the current anti-defection regime. What institutional changes are required to ensure the neutrality of the Lok Sabha Speaker in managing a polarised House?

Polity & Constitution

10

4

Is the right to vote a fundamental right? Discuss the position of the Election Commission of India while undertaking the revision of electoral rolls. Can it also examine the question of citizenship of voters?

Polity & Constitution

10

5

Do constitutional bodies like the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) possess adequate enforcement powers to secure substantive social equality? Suggest measures to enhance their institutional effectiveness.

Polity & Constitution

10

6

Does India's tribal development policy reflect the aspirations for a socially grounded and equity-based governance? Justify your answer.

Social Justice

10

7

Malnutrition in India is not merely a public health concern; it is also a challenge of social equity, human development and effective welfare governance. Discuss.

Social Justice

10

8

Analyse the advantages and limitations of the generalist structure of the Indian Civil Services in contemporary governance.

Governance

10

9

“IPMDA (Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness) bridges the gap between India's SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) vision and the Quad's collective Indo-Pacific strategy.” Make a critical assessment of the statement focusing on IPMDA.

International Relations

10

10

“BRICS acts as a powerful counterweight in global governance, actively amplifying the voice and influence of the Global South.” Explain the role of BRICS in projecting itself as an alternative to other groupings.

International Relations

10

11

Discuss the position of the Governor in the federal polity of India. What is the nature of his power while giving assent to a bill passed by the State Legislature? Is he bound by the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers in all his functions?

Polity & Constitution

15

12

What is meant by judicial legislation? In this context, discuss the verdicts of the apex court allowing “passive euthanasia” and a “living will”.

Polity & Constitution

15

13

How far has the Indian federal framework been successful in accommodating regional and cultural diversities? Highlight the role of asymmetric federalism and suggest measures to make dispute resolution mechanisms more effective.

Polity & Constitution

15

14

Examine how the separation of powers is practised in India compared to the rigid presidential model of the United States of America. In this context, compare the actual authority of the Indian Prime Minister with that of the President of the USA.

Polity & Constitution

15

15

To what extent do pressure groups, social movements and corporate lobbies deepen pluralistic democracy in India by representing excluded interests? Analyse whether the growing convergence of corporate wealth and political power poses a threat to the autonomy of formal democratic institutions.

Polity & Constitution

15

16

“Transparency and accountability in governance are not about controlling corruption but about creating the trust of stakeholders in the policy process by following the Rule of Law and Participatory Governance.” Comment.

Governance

15

17

Can the constitutional mandate of rights-based welfare be effectively realised in the context of non-integrated governance and minimal public investment? Examine.

Social Justice

15

18

Should education be treated primarily as a welfare obligation of the state or as a strategic investment for building a globally competitive, knowledge-driven nation? Critically evaluate.

Social Justice

15

19

“India's global diaspora acts as a living bridge, as a critical economic factor and knowledge network in transforming cultural heritage into geopolitical influence and strategic leverage worldwide.” Critically examine this statement.

International Relations

15

20

“China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) has transformed South Asia from a regional space into a theatre of great power competition.” Analyse the strategic implications of the BRI for India's security and regional influence in South Asia.

International Relations

15

Point

2026

Total questions and marks

20 questions, 250 marks, 10 × 10 and 10 × 15 — unchanged for six years

Polity weightage

8 questions, 105 marks — in line with the five-year average of 8.2

Governance weightage

2 questions, 25 marks — the lowest in six years

Social Justice weightage

6 questions, 70 marks — joint highest with 2021 and 2023

International Relations weightage

4 questions, 50 marks — exactly four for the sixth year running

Comparative constitutional question

Present — Q14, separation of powers and PM versus US President

Case-law dependent questions

Q1, Q3, Q4, Q11 and Q12 — five questions turn on judgments

Multi-part questions

Nearly all. Q4, Q11 and Q13 each carry three distinct sub-questions

Most current-affairs driven

Q1 the 2026 Transgender Act amendment, Q9 IPMDA, Q10 BRICS expansion, Q20 BRI

Most attemptable

Q7 malnutrition, Q11 Governor, Q13 federalism — all standard themes with ready material

Least attemptable

Q9 IPMDA, which required a specific initiative rather than general Quad knowledge, and Q1 which required the 2026 amendment

Overall difficulty

Difficult — the hardest GS-2 in the six-year window, mainly because of question length and the number of sub-parts

No.

Question

What is being asked

Key value addition

Q1

Right to privacy relating to self-identity is very dear to every human being and well protected under Article 21 of the Constitution. In this context, examine the effect of the amendment in 2026, to the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019.

Examine — link the privacy-self-identity principle to what the 2026 amendment actually changed.

The tension between certification and self-identification is the analytical core. Cite NALSA and Puttaswamy by name; most answers will only describe the scheme.

Q2

“Women as a class neither belong to a minority group nor are they regarded as forming a backward class.” In the light of this statement, discuss the evolution of women's reservation from local bodies to Parliament.

Discuss the evolution — the quoted line is a legal classification point that must be engaged with, not ignored.

The Article 15(3) versus Article 16(4) distinction explains why women's reservation is legally different from caste reservation. The 106th Amendment's dependence on census and delimitation is the sharpest current point.

Q3

Examine whether the constitutional office of the Lok Sabha Speaker has become vulnerable to partisan politics under the current anti-defection regime. What institutional changes are required to ensure the neutrality of the Lok Sabha Speaker in managing a polarised House?

Examine plus suggest — two clear halves, and the second half must be institutional, not moral.

Naming Kihoto Hollohan, Keisham Meghachandra Singh and the British Speaker convention lifts this above a generic answer.

Q4

Is the right to vote a fundamental right? Discuss the position of the Election Commission of India while undertaking the revision of electoral rolls. Can it also examine the question of citizenship of voters?

Three distinct sub-questions — answer all three explicitly.

The distinction between examining citizenship for enrolment and determining citizenship as a status is the exact point the question is testing. Also cite Article 326 and Section 16 of the RP Act, 1950.

Q5

Do constitutional bodies like the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) possess adequate enforcement powers to secure substantive social equality? Suggest measures to enhance their institutional effectiveness.

Answer the enforcement-power question directly, then reform.

Article 338(9) on mandatory consultation and the civil-court powers under inquiry are the two provisions most answers miss. Add conviction-rate data under the Atrocities Act.

Q6

Does India's tribal development policy reflect the aspirations for a socially grounded and equity-based governance? Justify your answer.

‘Does it reflect’ — take a position and justify, covering both achievement and gap.

The Xaxa Committee findings and Nehru's Panchsheel give the answer a benchmark to judge against, rather than just listing schemes.

Q7

Malnutrition in India is not merely a public health concern; it is also a challenge of social equity, human development and effective welfare governance. Discuss.

Discuss — the question already gives you three frames beyond health; use all three.

Disaggregated NFHS-5 data by caste and wealth quintile is what converts this from a health answer into a social-equity answer. Note the paradox of food surplus with malnutrition.

Q8

Analyse the advantages and limitations of the generalist structure of the Indian Civil Services in contemporary governance.

Analyse both sides — a balanced verdict on the generalist-specialist debate.

Second ARC's domain-assignment recommendation and Mission Karmayogi's competency framework are the two anchors. Mention lateral entry with balance rather than advocacy.

Q9

“IPMDA (Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness) bridges the gap between India's SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) vision and the Quad's collective Indo-Pacific strategy.” Make a critical assessment of the statement focusing on IPMDA.

Critical assessment — does IPMDA really bridge SAGAR and the Quad, or only partly?

Naming IFC-IOR Gurugram, dark shipping and the MAHASAGAR reformulation of SAGAR shows current awareness. Keep the assessment genuinely critical — the word is in the question.

Q10

“BRICS acts as a powerful counterweight in global governance, actively amplifying the voice and influence of the Global South.” Explain the role of BRICS in projecting itself as an alternative to other groupings.

Explain the alternative-grouping role — evidence for and against BRICS as a counterweight.

India's formulation that BRICS is non-Western rather than anti-Western is the single most useful line, and it distinguishes India's position from Russia's and China's.

Q11

Discuss the position of the Governor in the federal polity of India. What is the nature of his power while giving assent to a bill passed by the State Legislature? Is he bound by the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers in all his functions?

Three sub-questions — position, nature of assent power, and extent of the aid-and-advice binding.

Article 200's four options and the absence of a stated timeline, plus Shamsher Singh and Nabam Rebia, are essential. Note the reference on whether courts can prescribe timelines.

Q12

What is meant by judicial legislation? In this context, discuss the verdicts of the apex court allowing “passive euthanasia” and a “living will”.

Define the concept, then apply it to two specific judgments.

The 2023 modification of the Common Cause procedure is the detail that shows currency. Also mention the 241st Law Commission Report recommending a statute.

Q13

How far has the Indian federal framework been successful in accommodating regional and cultural diversities? Highlight the role of asymmetric federalism and suggest measures to make dispute resolution mechanisms more effective.

Three parts — assess success, explain asymmetric federalism, and suggest dispute-resolution reform.

Naming the specific Article 371 clauses and the underuse of Article 263 gives precision. The cess-and-surcharge point is the sharpest current fiscal grievance.

Q14

Examine how the separation of powers is practised in India compared to the rigid presidential model of the United States of America. In this context, compare the actual authority of the Indian Prime Minister with that of the President of the USA.

Comparative — then a specific comparison of PM and US President's actual authority.

The paradox — formally weaker, practically stronger with a majority — is the analytical payoff. A comparison table works well here.

Q15

To what extent do pressure groups, social movements and corporate lobbies deepen pluralistic democracy in India by representing excluded interests? Analyse whether the growing convergence of corporate wealth and political power poses a threat to the autonomy of formal democratic institutions.

Two parts — the democratic contribution of these actors, then the corporate-power threat.

The 2024 electoral bonds judgment and the 2017 removal of the corporate donation cap are the strongest evidence for the second half. Very few candidates will bring Olson's collective action logic.

Q16

“Transparency and accountability in governance are not about controlling corruption but about creating the trust of stakeholders in the policy process by following the Rule of Law and Participatory Governance.” Comment.

Comment — the statement reframes transparency away from anti-corruption; engage with that reframing.

Kerala's People's Plan and MGNREGA social audits are the two best Indian illustrations of participation producing trust rather than merely catching fraud. The procedural-justice idea is a strong analytical hook.

Q17

Can the constitutional mandate of rights-based welfare be effectively realised in the context of non-integrated governance and minimal public investment? Examine.

Examine — answer the ‘can it’ question, given the two constraints named.

The 1.9 versus 2.5 per cent health spending gap and the Kerala-Tamil Nadu contrast are the two most persuasive pieces of evidence. Note that money without convergence and convergence without money both fail.

Q18

Should education be treated primarily as a welfare obligation of the state or as a strategic investment for building a globally competitive, knowledge-driven nation? Critically evaluate.

‘Should it be A or B’ — critically evaluate both framings and resolve, do not simply pick one.

Sen and Drèze's argument that basic education is the precondition for economic sophistication is the resolution that lifts this answer. ASER learning-outcome data and the 6 per cent GDP target anchor it.

Q19

“India's global diaspora acts as a living bridge, as a critical economic factor and knowledge network in transforming cultural heritage into geopolitical influence and strategic leverage worldwide.” Critically examine this statement.

Critically examine — the statement is celebratory; test each of its three claims.

The Gulf-versus-West asymmetry — highest remittances, lowest political leverage — is the most valuable critical point and is usually missed.

Q20

“China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) has transformed South Asia from a regional space into a theatre of great power competition.” Analyse the strategic implications of the BRI for India's security and regional influence in South Asia.

Analyse strategic implications — for India's security and for India's regional influence, both.

Naming specific projects country by country and contrasting India's delivery record with China's speed is what makes this analytical rather than descriptive. The IMEC and Chabahar counters are essential.